In case you would like to know what the Bible actually does say on the subject:
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Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable (Leviticus 18:22).
The verb here,
shakab, indicates sexual relations in this context. In other words, it forbids men from having sexual relations with other men.
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Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion (Romans 1:26-27).
Here, homosexuality is viewed both as a result of man's rejection of God, and as a cause for certain man being rejected by God.
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Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality, nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God (1 Corinthians 6:9).
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understanding this, that the law is not laid down for the just but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who strike their fathers and mothers, for murderers, the sexually immoral, men who practice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine (1 Timothy 1:9-10),
In both the 1 Cor and the 1 Tim passages, the term
arsenokoites (literally, man-bedder) refers specifically to homosexuality.
I do not believe that passages about male shrine prostitution really contribute much, since the problem there is specifically their service to false gods, and we really don't know what sexual practices were involved anyway.
Also, the passages about Sodom and Gomorrah don't really contribute much, since what they were proposing there was actually rape, and not consensual sex. Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed for their hatred of God and their atrocious treatment of fellow human beings, not specifically for homosexuality.
Keep in mind, I'm only answering the question raised about what the Bible actually says about it, and am myself refraining from addressing the eternal destinies of those who practice it.
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Even if the bible says it, that doesnt necessarily mean that the religion is against it. It just means that some guy said it 2000 years ago, and it has been written down by some guy.
I suppose that depends on what you want to make of the Bible. I'm not entirely sure that Christians are at liberty to simply dismiss what the Bible says on any particular topic, considering that it was through these men who spoke and through these men who wrote it down that Christ chose to reveal himself to us. At the very least, we need a better reason than the one given for proposing that it is safe to ignore it.